GK Quiz on Union-State Relations & Vice-President of India

Q 1) Which of the following commission was appointed by the Central Government on Union-State relations in 1983?

a. Sarkariya commission

b. Dutt commission

c. Setalvad commission

d. Rajamannar commission

Answer: a

Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government of India to examine the central-state relationship on various portfolios. Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria (Chairman of the commission), was a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Q 2) Which of the following taxes are levied by the Union government but collected and appropriated by the states?

a. Stamp duties

b. Excise duties on medical and toilet materials

c. Sales tax

d. a and b

Answer: d

Explanation: The revenue generated from the Stamp duties and Excise duties on medical and toilet materials is imposed by the Central Government but collected and kept by the respective state government.

Q 3) Which of the following taxes are imposed and collected by the state government?

a. Estate duty

b. Sales tax

c. Land revenue

d. All the above

Answer: d

Explanation: Taxes imposed by the state government are; Sales Tax and VAT, Professional Tax, Luxury Tax, Entertainment Tax, Motor Vehicles Tax, Tax on Vehicles Entering State, Tax on Agricultural Income, Tax on Land and Buildings and Tax on Mineral Rights.

Q 4) Which of the following tax is levied and collected by the Union government but the proceeds are distributed between the Union and states?

a. Sales tax

b. Income tax

c. Estate duty

d. Land revenue

Answer: b

Explanation: Income tax is imposed by the central government under the Income Tax Act, 1961. This tax is distributed among the states on the recommendations of the finance commission.

Q 5) Which of the following duty is levied and collected by the Union government?

a. Custom duty

b. Excise duty

c. Estate duty

d. All the above

Answer: d

Explanation: All the direct taxes are imposed by the central government. Direct taxes are; income tax, wealth tax, corporation tax. Excise and custom duty were indirect tax but merged with GST.

Q 6) Which of the article deals with the grants in aid by the Union government to the states?

a. Article 270

b. Article 280

c. Article 275

d. Article 265

Answer: c

Explanation: Article 275 is related to Grants in aid from the Union government to certain States at the time of requirement.This fund allocation depends on the discretion of the central government. It shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Q 7) Which of the following article deals with the election of the Vice-president?

a. Article 64

b. Article 68

c. Article 66

d. Article 62

Answer: c

Explanation: Article 66 deals with the election of the Vice-president of India.

Q 8) Who can remove the Vice-President from his office?

a. President

b. Prime minister

c. Parliament

d. Legislative assemblies of the state

Answer: c

Explanation: The Indian Parliament has the power to remove the Vice President of India.

Q 9) The term of office of the Vice-president is as follows?

a. 6 years

b. 4 years

c. 7 years

d. 5 years

Answer: d

Explanation: The Vice-president is elected for the period of the 5 years, although he/she can resign before the completion of the tenure.

Q 10) The Vice-President is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the ........?

a. Rajya Sabha

b. Lok Sabha

c. Planning Commission

d. National Development Council

Answer: a

Explanation: The Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and acts as President when the latter is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other cause.

GK Quiz on Prime Minister of India and Supreme Court

Q 1) Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers?

(a) Article 76

(b) Article 74

(d) Article 72

Ans. c

Q 2) The Prime Minister is appointed by which one of the following?

(a) Attorney general of India

(b) President

(d) Chief justice of India

Ans. b

Q 3) Who among the following shall communicate to the president all the decisions of the council of ministers under article 78?

(a) Home minister

(b) Prime minister

(d) Finance minister

Ans. b

Q 4) The total number of ministers including the prime ministers shall not exceed-

(a) 20% members of the Lok sabha

(b) 10% members of the Lok sabha

(d) 15% members of the Lok sabha

Ans. d

Q 5). The Supreme Court of India at present contains the following number of Judges?

(a) 25 judges

(b) 31 judges

(d) 30 judges

Ans. b

Q 6). Who among the following appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court?

(a) Prime minister

(b) Vice-president

(d) President

Ans. d

Q 7). Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court?

(a) Original and Appellate Jurisdiction

(b) Appointment of ad-hoc judges

(d) All the above

Ans. d

Q 8). Which article of the constitution of India provides the composition and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?

(a) Article 137-141

(b) Article 144

(d) Article 124

Ans. d

Q 9). The National Judiciary Appointments Commission (NJAC) consists of the following persons?

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Two senior most Supreme Court judges

(d) All the above

Ans. d

Q 10). Mr. T.S. Thakur is the ...................Chief Justice of India.

(a) 41st

(b) 42nd

(d) 44th

Ans. c

GK Quiz on President & Pressure Groups

1. The executive power of the Union is vested in which one of the below?

A. Prime minister

B. Home minister

C. Vice-president

D. President

Ans: D

2. Which one of the following article deals with the pardoning power of the President?

A. Article 71

B. Article 74

C. Article 72

D. Article 75

Ans: C

3. The impeachment of the President is carried by which one of the following?

A. Attorney general

B. Members of the legislative

C. Parliament

D. Prime minister

Ans: C

4. Which one of the following article deals with the tenure of the President?

A. Article 53

B. Article 56

C. Article 55

D. Article 52

Ans: B

5. Which of the following article deals with the impeachment of the President?

A. Article 65

B. Article 62

C. Article 64

D. Article 61

Ans: D

GK Quiz on Parliament & Parliamentary Committees

6. The Pressure groups are:

A. Political organisations

B. Economic organisation

C. Moral organisations

D. Organisations of universal character

Ans: D

7. The Pressure Group tries to promote the interests of their members by exerting pressure on:

A. Executive

B. Judiciary

C. Legislative

D. All the above

Ans: D

8. Which of the following are known as Pressure Groups?

A. Trade unions

B. Caste groups

C. Tribal organisations

D. All the above

Ans: D

9. which of the following is not a feature of pressure group?

A. It tries to influence from outside

B. Its membership is large

C. It actively joins political parties

D. Its members can join any number of groups

Ans: C

10. Which of the following is not a method used by the pressure group for achieving its objectives?

A. It finances political parties

B. It organises demonstrations

C. It clearly aligns with a political party

D. It tries to influence policy makers

Ans: C

GK Quiz on Parliamentary Forum & Preamble of the Constitution

Q 1. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management constituted?

a. 1950

b. 2005

c. 1970

d. 1985

Q 2. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Youth constituted?

a) 2010

b) 2008

c) 2006

d) 1985

Q 3. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and Climate Change constituted?

a) 2005

b) 2006

c) 2007

d) 2008

Q 4. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Disaster Management constituted?

a) 2011

b) 2010

c) 2009

d) 2008

Q 5. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Children constituted?

a) 2006

b) 2007

c) 2008

d) 2009

Q 6.Which of the following describes India as a secular state?

(a) Fundamental rights

(b) Directive principles of state policy

(d) Preamble of the constitution

Q.7 “The independence of Judiciary” in Indian constitution is taken from.

(a) Britain

(b) USA

(d) Australia

Q 8.In a parliamentary form of Government the real powers of the state, are vested in the….

(a) The President

(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme court

(d) Parliament

Q 9. Which of the following amendment acts amended the Preamble of the Indian constitution?

(a) 44th Amendment act

(b) 42nd Amendment act

(d) It has never been amended

Q 10. Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the constitution in which of the following cases/case?

(a) Berubari Union case (1960)

(b) Unni Krishnan vs Union of India

(d) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi government

Question	Answer
1	b
2	c
3	d
4	a
5	a
6	d
7	a
8	c
9	b
10	a

GK Quiz on Parliament & Parliamentary Committees

1. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution deals with the constitution of the Parliament of India?

A. Article 73

B. Article 78

C. Article 79

D. Article 72

Ans: C

2. Which of the following article deals with the composition of council of states ( Rajya sabha) and the manner of election of its members?

A. Article 82

B. Article 81

C. Article 90

D. Article 80

Ans: D

3. The representatives of the state in the Rajya sabha are elected by which one of the following?

A. Chief minister of the state

B. Elected members of the state legislative assembly

C. Governor

D. President

Ans: B

4. The number of representatives of the Rajya sabha from states and union territories are among which one of the following?

A. 238

B. 212

C. 200

D. 220

Ans: A

5. How many number of members are nominated by the President to the Rajya sabha?

A. 20

B. 18

C. 12

D. 15

Ans: C

GK Quiz on High courts & Lokpal and Lokayuktas

6. Which among the following is not a standing committee?

A. Public accounts committee

B. Ethics committee

C. Railway convention committee

D. Business advisory committee

Ans: C

7. Consider the following statements. Which among them is/are NOT true?

I. Standing Committees are the permanent committees that are constituted on a regular basis

II. Ad hoc committees are temporary committees that are dissolved when the task is completed

III. Committee of Privileges is an ad-hoc committee

IV. Joint Committee on Fertilizer pricing is a standing committee

A. Only III and IV

B. Only I and II

C. Only I and III

D. Only II and IV

Ans: A

8. What among the following is NOT true about the Public Accounts Committee?

I. The committee was first set up in 1919

II. It's main function is to audit the annual reports of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)

III. It consists of 15 Lok Sabha members and 7 Rajya Sabha members

IV. The term of the office of the Public Accounts Committee is one year

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Only III

D. All are true

Ans: D

9. Which among the following is NOT true about the Estimates Committee?

I. The first Estimates Committee of the post-independence era was first set up in 1950

II. Estimates Committee has a right to question the policies approved by the Parliament

III. It consists of members that are both from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

IV. Chairman of the Estimates Committee is always from the Opposition party

A. Only IV

B. Only III

C. Only II and IV

D. Only II, III and IV

Ans: D

10. Consider the following statements about the Committee on Government Assurances. Which of the following is/are not true?

A. It was constituted in 1953

B. Its main function is to examine the assurances and undertakings given by the ministers on the floor of the House and report back on the status of these assurances and promises

C. For the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members

D. For the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members

Ans: D

GK Quiz on NITI Aayog & Panchayati Raj in India

Q 1). Who heads the Niti aayog as its chairperson?

a. President of India

b. Prime minister

c. Finance minister

d. Minister of planning

Q 2). NITI Aayog came into effect from?

a. 1st march 2015

b. 1st April 2015

c. 1st January

d. 25th dec 2014

Q 3). Think tank of Government of India that replaced the Planning commission is?

a. NITI dharma

b. NITI Vakya

c. NITI Shashan

d. NITI Aayog

Q 4). Which one of the following is the CEO of Niti Aayog?

a. Arvind Mayaram

b. Rajiv Meharshi

c. Amitabh Kant

d. None

Q 5). Which of the following below is the vice-chairman of the NITI Aayog ?

a. Montek singh ahluwalia

b. Abhijeet sen

c. Amartya sen

d. Arvind panagariya

Q 6). Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 makes provisions for a 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all the States having population of above__:

a.15 Lakh

b. 20 Lakh

c. 25 Lakh

d. 30 Lakh

Q 7). Which of the following state was the first to establish Panchayati raj institutions?

a. Rajasthan

b. Andhra pradesh

c. West Bengal

d. Gujarat

Q 8). Which part of the constitution deals with the panchayats?

a. Part IX

b. Part X

c. Part IX

d. Part XI

Q 9). The panchayat system was adopted to:

a. To decentralise the power of democracy

b. Make people aware of politics

c. Educate the peasants

d. None of this

Q 10). Which of the following states have no panchayati raj institution at all?

a. Nagaland

b. Assam

c. kerala

d. Tripura

Question	Answer
1	b
2	c
3	d
4	c
5	d
6	b
7	a
8	a
9	a
10	a

GK Quiz on High courts & Lokpal and Lokayuktas

1. Which one of the following is true about High courts?

A. It has original and appellate jurisdiction

B. It enjoys the power of judicial review

C. It acts as the court of law

D. All the above

Ans: D

2. At present, how many high courts are there in India?

A. 25

B. 21

C. 28

D. 29

Ans: B

3. Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of judges?

A. Article 214

B. Article 217

C. Article 226

D. Article 216

Ans: B

4. High courts issue writs under article-.........

A. 220

B. 221

C. 213

D. 226

Ans: D

5. The chief justice and other judges of the high courts are appointed by which one of the following?

A. Prime minister

B. Chief minister

C. Governor

D. President

Ans: D

GK Quiz on Elections for the Lok Sabha & Borrowed features of Indian Constitution

6. Which is the oldest known system designed for the redressal of citizen's grievance?

A. Ombudsman System

B. Lokpal

C. Lokayukta

D. None of the above

Ans: A

7. Which was the first Indian state to establish the institution of Lokayukta?

A. Bihar

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

Ans: D

8. When did The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 came into force?

A. January 2013

B. May 2013

C. December 2013

D. January 2013

Ans: A

9. Who appoints the Lokayukta and Upalokayukta?

A. Governor of the state

B. Chief Minister

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. Judge of High Court

Ans: A

10. Which state's Lokayukta's office is considered to be the strongest in terms of power and scope?

A. Bihar

B. Karnataka

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

Ans: B

GK Quiz on Fundamental Duties & Fundamental Rights

1. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?

(a) Right to Speech
(b) Right to Religion
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Ans: d

Explanation: Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended even during an emergency.

2. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in:

(a) Part-IV A
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-III
(d) In schedule IV-A

Ans: a

Explanation: The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.

3. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?

(a) 45 A
(b) 51 A
(c) 42
(d) 30B

Ans: b

Explanation: The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Article 51 A of the Indian Constitution.

4. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties?

(a) Safeguarding public property
(b) Protecting the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India
(c) Developing scientific temper and humanism
(d) All the above

Ans: d

Explanation: It shall be the duty of every citizen of India-- (a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; (b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; (c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; (d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; (e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; (f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; (g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures; (h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; (i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence; (j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; (k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

5. Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Malhotra Committee
(b) Raghavan Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Narasimhan Committee

Ans: c

Explanation: Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

6. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contain the Right to Religious Freedom?

(a) Articles 25-28
(b) Articles 29-30
(c) Articles 32-35
(d) Articles 23-24

Ans: a

Explanation: Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution contains the Right to Religious Freedom.

Article 25: (1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion. (2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law— (a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice; (b) providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.

Explanation I- The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion.

Explanation II- In sub-clause (b) of clause (2), the reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly.

Article 26: Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have
the right- (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with the law.

Article 27: No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in
payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.

Article 28: (1) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State
funds. (2) Nothing in clause (1) shall apply to an educational institution that is administered by the State but has been established under any endowment or trust which requires that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution. (3) No person attending any educational institution recognised by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to take part in any religious instruction that may be imparted in such institution or to attend any
religious worship that may be conducted in such institution or in any premises attached thereto unless such person or, if such person is a minor, his guardian has given his consent thereto.

7. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees 'Equality Before the Law and Equal Protection of Law within the Territory of India'?

(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 17
(d) 18

Ans: b

Explanation: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

8. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability?

(a) Article 18
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 17

Ans: d

Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability. It states: “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law.

9. Which of the following is correct with respect to “Right Against Exploitation”?

(a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
(b) Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion
(c) Protection of interests of minorities
(d) Equality before the law

Ans: a

Explanation: Articles 23-24 of the Indian Constitution contains the Right Against Exploitation.

Article 23: (1) Traffic in human beings and the beggar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law. (2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purposes, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.

Article 24: No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

10. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental Rights are provided?

(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part V
(d) Part IV

Ans: b

Explanation: Part III of the Indian Constitution mentions the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.

11. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India by which of the following Amendment Act?

(a) 40th Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 43rd Amendment Act
(d) 42nd Amendment Act

Ans: d

Explanation: Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976.

GK Quiz on Emergency Provisions & Governors of the States

Q 1) National emergency is declared under which of the following articles?

a. Article 358

b. Article 352

c. Article 359

d. Article 360

Q 2) National emergency proclamation is issued in case of?

a. Armed rebellion

b. External aggression

c. War

d. All the above

Q 3) proclamation of emergency under article 352 is issued by which one of the following?

a. Prime minister

b. President

c. Defence minister

d. Home minister

Q 4) emergency under article 356 is imposed by which one of the below?

a. Prime minister

b. Governor

c. Vice-president’

d. President

Q 5) Financial emergency is imposed under article?

a. Article 354

b. Article 365

c. Article 367

d. Article 360

Q 6) In real sense the Governor of the State is appointed by the President on the advice of the following…….

a. Prime Minister

b. Chief Minister

c. Vice-President

d. Chief Justice

Q 7) The Governor of the State can be removed by which one of the following?

a. Chief Minister

b. Prime Minister

c. Union Home Minister

d. President

Q 8) Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor?

a. Selection of Chief Minister

b. Provide advice to the President regarding President’s rule in the concerned state.

c. Returning back the bill to the State legislature for reconsideration.

d. All the above

Q 9) Among which of the followings are appointed by the Governor?

a. Advocate General

b. Chief secretary of the State

c. Vice-chancellors of universities

d. All the above

Q 10) Which one of the following article deals with the Governor of States?

a. Article 150

b. Article 153

c. Article 165

d. Article 167

Question	Answer
1	b
2	d
3	b
4	d
5	d
6	a
7	d
8	d
9	d
10	b

GK Questions and Answers: Election System in India & Election Reforms

1. Which of the following is not a feature of Election system in India?

A. Universal Adult Franchise

B. Secret Voting

C. Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

D. Communal Electorate

Ans: D

2. Elections in India for Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted by.....

A. President

B. State Election Commission

C. Governor

D. Election Commission of India

Ans: D

3. Members of Election Commission are appointed by........

A. President of India

B. Prime Minister of India

C. Elected by the people

D. Chief Justice of India

Ans: A

4. Which article of the Indian constitution says that will be an election commission in India?

A. Article 124

B. Article 342

C. Article 324

D. Article 115

Ans: C

5. The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste in the Lok sabha is:

A. 59

B. 79

C. 89

D. 99

Ans: B

GK Quiz on Definition of State in India & Co-operative Societies in India

6. Which Articles in the Constitution give provisions for the electoral system in our country?

A. Articles 124-128

B. Articles 324-329

C. Articles 256-259

D. Articles 274-279

Ans: B

7. The elections for Lok Sabha are held every:

A. 3 years

B. 4 years

C. 5 years

D. 6 years

Ans: C

8. Which among the following statements is/are false?

1. For qualifying to the Lok Sabha, a person must be at least 25 years of age

2. A person can be a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at the same time

3. A person belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe can contest elections from a general seal also, and not just with the reserved seat

4. If a member of either of the Houses votes against the directions given by his party, he can be deemed to be disqualified

Code:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2 and 4

C. Only 3

D. Only 2

Ans: D

9. What is the maximum allowed duration between the last session of the dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling of the Lok Sabha?

A. 2 months

B. 4 months

C. 5 months

D. 6 months

Ans: D

10. Which is the smallest Lok Sabha Constituency in General Elections by area?

A. Delhi Sadar

B. Mumbai South

C. Kolkata North West

D. Chandni Chowk, Delhi

Ans: D

GK Quiz on Directive Principles of State Policy & Election Commission of India

Q 1. Directive principles of State Policy is mentioned in …….. of the Indian constitution.

(a) Part I

(b) Part VI

(d) Part IV

Q 2. Which of the following are listed as a Directive Principle of State policy?

(i) freedom in the economic field for the interest of the consumer and producer

(ii) Regulation of economic system of the country to prevent concentration of wealth and means of production

(iii) To ensure decent standard of living and facilities of leisure for all workers

(iv) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife

(a) (ii) and (iii)

(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(d) (iii), (iv)

Q 3. Which group of the following articles of the Indian Constitution contains Directive principles of State policy?

(a) 36-51

(b) 28-48

(d) 30-49

Q 4. Which of the following article of the Constitution is directed to establish Uniform Civil Code?

(a) Article 45

(b) Article 39

(d) Article 40

Q 5. Which of the following Supreme Court decisions stated that the Directive Principles of State policy cannot override fundamental rights?

(a) In State of Madras Vs. Champakam Dorairajan

(b) In Keshavananda Bharti vs. UOI

(d) In Unna Krishnan vs. State of Andhra Pradesh

6. Which Article in the Indian Constitution provides for an Election Commission in India?

a) Article 324

b) Article 128

c) Article 256

d) Article 378

7. Currently, there are how many members in the Election Commission?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

8. What is the tenure of office for the Chief Election Commissioner?

a) 5 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier

b) 6 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier

c) 6 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier

d) 5 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier

9. For the Election Commission, at the district level, who acts as the district returning officer?

a)) District Magistrate

b) Police Commissioner

c) Tehsildars

d) None of the above

10. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of Election Commission?

a) Prime Minister of India

b) Chief Justice of India

c) President of India

d) Lok Sabha speaker

Question	Answer
1	d
2	b
3	a
4	c
5	a
6	a
7	c
8	c
9	a
10	c

GK Quiz on Citizenship of India, Citizenship Amendment Act & Chief Minister of the state

1. Which of the following statements are true regarding the citizenship of India?

i) A citizen of India is anyone born on or after 26th January 1950

ii) Anyone born before July 1, 1987 is Indian citizen by birth irrespective of his parents nationality

a. Only i

b. Only ii

c. i and ii combined

d. None of the above

Ans. c

Explanation: A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July, 1987 is citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.

2. Indian constitution took the concept of single citizenship from?

a. USA

b. UK

c. Australia

d. Japan

Ans. b

Explanation: The concept of single citizenship in India has been inspired from the United Kingdom’s constitution.

3. What is true about NRC?

i) It is a register prepared after the Census of 1951

ii) It holds the data of each village, household and was published in 1951

iii) NRC along with the Electoral Roll of 1971 is called Legacy Data

a. Only i

b. i and ii

c. ii and iii

d. All of the above

Ans. d

Explanation: The National Register of Citizens, 1951 is a register that was prepared after the conduct of the Census of 1951 in each village and house of India. It shows the houses or holdings in a serial order and indicates against each house, the number and names of persons staying therein. NRC along with Electoral Roll is called the Legacy Data.

4. Which committee gave the idea of jus soli kind of citizenship?

a. Constituent Assembly

b. Motilal Nehru Committee

c. Attlee Committee

d. None of the above

Ans. b

Explanation: Motilal Nehru Committee in 1928 came in favour of the concept of jus soli for the first time.

5. In which list of the Indian Constitution is the Citizenship included?

a. State List

b. Union List

c. Concurrent List

d. None of the above

Ans. b

Explanation: Citizenship is listed in the Union List under the Constitution of India.

6. The Constitution defines citizens as?

a. Any person born in India

b. Any person who spends more than 5 years in India

c. Any person who is born in India or his/her parents are born in India

d. Constitution does not define citizen

Ans. d

Explanation: The Constitution does not define the term ‘citizen’ but entails the various categories of persons entitled to citizenship in Part 2.

7. Which article of the Constitution contains the provisions of citizenship to persons migrated to India from Pakistan?

a. Article 5

b. Article 6

c. Article 7

d. Article 8

Ans. b

Explanation: Article 6 provides for the rights of citizenship of certain people who have migrated to India from Pakistan.

8. Indian citizenship can be acquired through which of the following?

a. By descent

b. By naturalization

c. By registration

d. All of the above

Ans. d

Explanation: Indian Citizenship can be acquired by descent, naturalization and by registration. The provisions for these have been listed in Part 2 of the Constitution.

9. When was the Citizenship Amendment Bill passed by the Parliament?

a. 2020

b. 2018

c. 2019

d. 2017

Ans. c

Explanation: The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 was passed by the Parliament of India on 11 December 2019.

10. Which of the following statements is true regarding Citizenship Amendment Act 2019?

i) It amends the Citizenship Act 1955

ii) It provides for Indian Citizenship to persecuted religious minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who are mainly Muslims

a. Only i

b. Only ii

c. Both i and ii

d. None of the above

Ans. a

Explanation: Citizenship Amendment Act 2019 amends the Citizenship Act of 1955. Indian citizenship for persecuted religious minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who are Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis or Christians but not Muslims. They must have entered India before December 2014.

11. Who appoints the Advocate General of states?

a. Governor of state

b. Chief Minister of state

c. Chief justice of the high court

d. President of India

Ans. a

Explanation: The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor of the respective state

12. Who does the Chief Minister give his resignation to?

a. Prime Minister

b. Governor of the state

c. Chief justice of the High Court

d. President of India

Ans.b

Explanation: The Chief Minister's resignation is to be accepted or rejected by the Governor of the state. It is handed over to him/her by the CM.

13. Which among the following statements concerning the Chief Minister is/are NOT true?

i) At his time of appointment, the Chief Minister need not be a member of the state legislature

ii) The Chief Minister must always prove his majority in the legislative assembly before his appointment.

iii) It is the governor who does the final appointment of the Chief Minister.

iv) The Chief Minister can recommend the dissolution of the legislative assembly to the Governor.

a. Only i and iv

b. Only ii

c. i and ii

d. iii and iv

Ans. b

Explanation: The chief minister is elected through a majority in the state legislative assembly. The Chief Minister after his appointment also has to prove his/her majority whenever there is a floor test.

14. The powers and functions of the Chief Minister of the state are analogous to which of the following?

a. President

b. Prime Minister

c. Governor

d. Cabinet Minister

Ans. b

Explanation: The Chief Minister of the state has powers analogous to the Prime minister of the Union.

15. What is the minimum age to become the Chief Minister of any State?

a. 30 years

b. 35 years

c. 25 years

d. 21 years

Ans. c

GK Quiz on Comptroller and Auditor General of India & Constitution of India

1). Which Article in the Constitution on India provides for the post of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?

a) Article148

b) Article343

c) Article266

d) Article 248

2). Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?

a) Prime minister

b) Chief justice of India

c) President

d) Vice-president

3). What is the tenure of the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?

a) 5 years or age of 60, whichever is lower

b) 6 years or age of 65, whichever is lower

c) 4 years or age of 65, whichever is lower

d) Age of 60

4). Who is the current CAG of India?

a) Shashi Kant Sharma

b) Rajiv Mehrishi

c) Vinod Rai

d) V.N. Kaul

5). Which of the following corporations is fully audited by Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?

a) Reserve Bank of India

b) Life Insurance Corporation

c) Air India

d) State Bank of India

6). The constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on…….

a) 25 October, 1958

b) 26 January, 1950

c) 26 January, 1949

d) 26th November, 1949

7). Constitution of India came into effect on………

a) 15 January, 1950

b) 26th January, 1950

c) 15 August, 1950

d) 26 November, 1949

8). Right to property according to the constitution is………..

a) Fundamental right

b) Legal right

c) Social right

d) Directive principles

9). Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in respect of the constitution of India

a) President

b) Union Cabinet

c) Supreme Court

d) Parliament

10). The total number of Schedules in the constitution are

a) 8

b) 12

c) 10

d) 14

Question	Answer
1	a
2	c
3	b
4	b
5	c
6	c
7	b
8	b
9	c
10	b

GK Quiz on Anti-defection Law and Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

1. Which of the following two statements is true about CBI?

i) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is exempt from the Right to Information (RTI) Act

ii) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is a part of the Union subject, and not State or Concurrent subjects

a. Only i

b. Only ii

c. Both i and ii

d. None of the above

Ans. b

Explanation: The Central Bureau of Investigation is not exempted from RTI. It is part of the Union list and states have no control over it.

2. In which year was the Anti-Defection law passed?

a. 1950

b. 1960

c. 1985

d. 2005

Ans. c

Explanation: The anti defection law was passed by the Parliament in 1985 and was reinforced in 2002

3. Who decides whether the disqualification by anti-defection is to be done or not?

a. Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha

b. Prime Minister

c. President

d. None of the above

Ans. a

Explanation: The decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is taken by the Speaker or the Chairman of the House in which the case is raised.

4. Which of the following statements regarding the implementation of anti-defection law are included in the criteria?

i. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party

ii. If an elected member votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorized to do so, without obtaining any prior permission

a. Only i

b. Only ii

c. Both i and ii

d. Neither i nor ii

Ans. c

Explanation: Both the options stated above are correct.

5. Consider the following statements and choose the correct one from below

i. The anti-defection law gives for the first time a clear cut constitutional recognition to the existence of political parties

ii. The total number of ministers including the Prime Minister in the central council of ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok sabha.

a. i only

b. ii only

c. Both i and ii

d. Neither i nor ii

Ans. a

Explanation: The anti defection law gives a clear cut constitutional recognition to the existence of political parties.

6. Which amendment was responsible for the Anti Defection Law?

a. 52nd

b. 51st

c. 55th

d. 56th

Ans. a

Explanation: The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution popularly referred to as the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ was inserted by the 52nd Amendment (1985) to the Constitution.

7. Which committee was responsible for the exemption from disqualification in case of a split from Tenth Schedule (anti-defection) ?

a. Kelkar committee

b. Dinesh Goswami committee

c. S.K. Majhi committee

d. None of the above

Ans. b

Explanation: Following the Dinesh Goswami Committee's recommendations, there must be assent of at least 2-3rd members for any merger to be termed as valid.

8. Which of the following statements is true regarding a whip?

i) He/ she can expel a member at the time of defection

ii) He has the power to expel a member of the House in case of defection

a. Only i

b. Only ii

c. Both i and ii

d. None of the above

Ans. a

Explanation: The whip of any party can expel the member in case he/ she observes a defection.

9. In which year the Central Bureau of Investigation was established?

a. 1947

b. 1950

c. 1963

d. 1965

Ans. c

Explanation: The Central Bureau of Investigation was established in 1963 in India and its headquarters were located in New Delhi.

10. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) comes under the administrative control of:

a. Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) of the Ministry of Personnel

b. Ministry of Home Affairs

c. Ministry of Defense

d. None of the above

Ans. a

Explanation: The CBI comes under the effective control of DoPT.

GK Quiz on Indian Polity (SET 2)

1. Part IV of Indian Constitution deals with……….

a) Fundamental Rights

b) Citizenship

c) Directive Principles of State Policy

d) Union Executive

2. To whom the Speaker of the Lok Sabha gives his resignation?

a) President

b) Chief justice of India

c) Prime minister

d) Deputy speaker of lok sabha

3. What was the duration of Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy as the president of India?

a) 1962 to 9176

b) 1967 to 69

c) 1977 to 1982

d) None of these

4. Who among the following does not give his resignation to the president of India?

a) Attorney General Of India

b) Governors of the states

c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

d) Lok Sabha Speaker

5. Lok Sabha speaker takes the oath of the office from:

a) Prime Minister

b) President

c) Chief Judge Of Supreme Court

d) No oath

6. Which of the following is NOT the fundamental duty for Indian citizens?

a) To safe guard public property

b) To protect and improve the natural environment

c) To obey all the women

d) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of enquiry

7. Which of the following is not the pillar of Directive Principal of State Policy?

a) Democratic principles

b) Liberal principles

c) Gandhian principles

d) Socio-Economic principles

8. Which of the following articles is called the “Soul of the Constitution” by the Dr. Ambedkar?

a) Article 32

b) Article 368

c) Article 19

d) Article 15

9. Which of the following article remains in force during the National Emergency?

a) Article 32

b) Article 21

c) Article 19

d) Article 15

10. Article 18 of the Indian Constitution deals with:

a) Abolition of untouchability

b) Abolition of Titles

c) Abolition of Child labour

d) Right to equality

Question	Answer
1	c
2	d
3	c
4	d
5	d
6	c
7	a
8	a
9	b
10	b

GK Quiz on the Members of Parliament & National Commission for O.B.C.

1. National Commission for Other Backward Class came into effect from:

(a) 1993

(b) 1995

(d) 2003

2. Which article of Indian constitution gives the power to the government to make special provisions for the development of SC/ST/OBC against the article 15?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 29

(d) None of these

3. Who is the current Chairman of the National Commission for Other Backward Class?

(a) Najma Hiptulla

(b) P.L.Punia

(d) Justice V. Eswaraiah.

4. How many members are in the National Commission for Other Backward Class?

(a) 4

(b) 6

(d) 8

5. What is the current limit of creamy layer (for OBC)in India to decide the benefits of the reservation?

(a) 4.5 lac /Annum

(b) 6 lac /Annum

(d) None of these

6. To become a member of Lok Sabha, What should be the minimum age of the candidate?

(a) 30 years

(b) 25 years

(d) 18 years

7. What is the minimum age to be the member of the Rajya Sabha?

(a) 30 years

(b) 35 years

(d) 36 years

8. Under which condition, a member of parliament can lose his/her membership?

(a) If he/she holds an office of profit under the Union of a State Government.

(b) If he is declared to be of unsound mind by a court.

(d) All of the above

9. Which one of the following is NOT true?

(a) Additional criteria for disqualification may be provided by laws passed by the Parliament.

(b) A person cannot remain simultaneously a member of both the Houses of the Parliament or a member of either House of the Parliament and a member of a state legislature.

(c) Whether any disqualification has been incurred by a citizen is settled by the President in consultation with the election commission.

(d) Continuous absence from the Parliament for 70 days or more without permission, may lead to expulsion of the member from the concerned House.

10. Which article lays down the qualifications for membership of the two Houses of Parliament?

(a) Article 101

(b) Article 83

(d) Article 65

Question	Answer
1	a
2	b
3	d
4	a
5	b
6	b
7	a
8	d
9	d
10	b

GK Quiz on Indian Budget & Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)

1. Union budget of India is referred in which of the following article:

(a) Article 109

(b) Article 112

(d) 212

2. The first Union budget of independent India was presented by:

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(b) Vallabh Bhai Patel

(d) Morarji Ranchhodji DesaiIn

3. What is the current exemption limit of income tax for general citizens?

(a) 2.20 Lac/Annum

(b) 2.50 Lac/Annum

(d) 3.00 Lac/Annum

4. The only woman who holds the post of the Finance Minister of India is:

(a) Sarojini Naidu

(b) Indira Gandhi

(d) Vijay Laxmi Pandit

5. Which ex- Prime Minister of India did not present the union budget of India?

(a) Morarji Desai

(b) Rajiv Gandhi

(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

6.Which committee recommended the establishment of IRDA?

(a) P.N. Mehrotra Committee

(b) R.N. Malhotra Committee

(d) Rajmannr Committee

7. Along with banking services insurance sector contributes about ........percent of GDP of India:

(a) 13%

(b) 9%

(d) 7%

8.When was IRDA established?

(a) 1965

(b) 1954

(d) 2001

9.Taxes Levied and Collected by the Union but Assigned to the States within which they are leviable.

Find out the correct option from below:

I. Taxes on transactions in stock exchange

II. Tax of sale and purchase of newspapers including advertisements

III. Estate duty in respect of property other than agriculture land

IV. Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations

(a) Only I & II are correct

(b) I,II & III are correct

(d) Only IV & I are correct

10.Who is the current IRDA chief?

(a) J. Harinarayan

(b) Rana Pratap

(d) K.T.S. Tulsi

Question	Answer
1	B
2	C
3	B
4	B
5	D
6	B
7	D
8	C
9	B
10	C

GK Quiz on Elections for the Lok Sabha & Borrowed features of Indian Constitution

1. What is the minimum age to become a member of Lok Sabha?

A. 30 years

B. 18 years

C. 25 years

D. 35 years

Ans: C

2. What is the strength of total elected members of 14th Lok Sabha?

A. 545

B. 543

C. 552

D. 550

Ans: B

3. What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution?

A. 545 members

B. 550 members

C. 552 members

D. 535

Ans: C

4. How many members are elected in the Lok Sabha from the Union Territories (according to Constitutional provision)

A. 20

B. 22

C. 30

D. 35

Ans: A

5. During the proclamation of emergency is in operation the term of Lok Sabha may be extended at a time for a period not exceeding:

A. 2.5 years

B. 1 year

C. 1.5 years

D. Depend on the discretion of the President

Ans: B

GK Quiz on High courts & Lokpal and Lokayuktas

6.Which feature of Indian Constitution is not taken from American Constitution?

A. Preamble

B. Single citizenship

C. Judicial Review

D. Fundamental Rights

Ans: B

7. Procedure for the amendment of the Constitution is taken form:

A. USA

B. Russia

C. South Africa

D. Canada

Ans: C

8.The concept of Federal System in Indian Constitution is taken from:

A. Ireland

B. Australia

C. Germany

D. Canada

Ans: D

9.From which country the concept Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution is taken?

A. USA

B. Russia

C. South Africa

D. Canada

Ans: B

10.Emergency provisions in Indian Constitution is taken from:

A. Australia

B. Japan

C. Canada

D. Germany

Ans: D

GK Quiz on Definition of State in India & Co-operative Societies in India

1. Which of the following is the actual definition of states in the Indian Constitution?

A. Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the

control of the Government of India.

B. Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local authorities

C. Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local authorities within the territory of India.

D. Parliament of India, state assembly and president of India

Ans: A

2. Which article of Indian constitution defines the “State”?

A. Article 9

B. Article 10

C. Article 11

D. Article 12

Ans: D

3. Which of the following organisation does not come under the definition of: States”?

A. IDBI

B. CSIR

C. NCRET

D. ONGC

Ans: C

4. Article 2 and 3 deals with the……..:

A. Fundamental duties

B. Name of the country

C. Establishment of new states

D. Citizenship

Ans: C

5. When state reorganisation committee was appointed?

A. 1952

B. 1955

C. 1958

D. 1953

Ans: D

GK Quiz on the House of Representatives (Parliament)

6. Which sector is mainly served by the Co-operative Societies in India?

A. Corporate Houses

B. Pharmaceutical

C. Electricity

D. Farming

Ans: D

7. Verghese Kurien is related to:

A. Green revolution

B. White revolution

C. Blue revolution

D. Yellow reolution

Ans: B

8. National Milk Day is observed on:

A. 25 Nov.

B. 2 Dec.

C. 26 Nov.

D. 24 Oct.

Ans: C

9. Which of the following is not a Co-operative Federation in India?

A. NAFED

B. IFFCO

C. MOTHER DIARY

D. KRIBHCO

Ans: C

10. Who written the Book "I too had a dream":

A. Verghese Kurien

B. M.S. Swaminathan

C. A.P.J.Abdul Kalam

D. Arun Jaitely

Ans: A

GK Quiz of Indian Polity on Central Information Commission & Central Vigilance Commission

1. Central Information Commission (CIC) is established by the central government under the:

(a) Right to Information ACT, 2006

(b) Right to Information ACT, 2005

(d) Central Information Commission Act,2005

2. Who appoints the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners in India?

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Prime Minister

(d) President

3. Who is the current Chief Information Commissioner of India?

(a) Radha Krishna Mathur

(b) Manjula Prasher

(d) A. Surya Kumar

4. Who administers the oath of office to newly-appointed Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) and Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)?

(a) President

(b) Chief justice of India

(d) Any sitting Judge of Supreme Court

5. Which of the following is not a current Information Commissioner?

(a) Basant Seth

(b) Sharat Sabharwal

(d) S Y Kureshi

6. When was Central Vigilance Commission established?

(a) 1964

(b) 2005

(d) 1988

7. Which committee recommended the establishment of Central Vigilance Commission?

(a) Sarkariya Committee

(b) Santhanam Committee

(d) Narshingham Committee

8. Who is the current Central Vigilance Commissioner?

(a) Ranjit Sinha

(b) T.M. Bahasin

(d) K.V.Chaudhary

9. Who appoints the Central Vigilance Commissioner?

(a) President

(b) President, after obtaining the recommendation from a committee consist of Prime Minister of India, Home Minister and Leader of opposition

(d) President, after having consultation with Chief election Commissioner of India

10. Who have the power to remove Central Vigilance Commissioner and other Vigilance commissioners?

(a) President & Supreme Court

(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

(d) Prime Minister, Home Minister and Chief Justice of India

Question	Answer
1	b
2	d
3	a
4	a
5	d
6	a
7	b
8	d
9	b
10	a

GK Quiz on Bills and Passing of an Act & Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)

1. Which one of the following sets of Bills is presented to the Parliament along with the Budget?

(a) Direct taxes bill and Indirect taxes bill

(b) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill

(d) Finance Bill and Contingency Bill

2. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within:

(a) 10 days

(b) 14 days

(d) 30 days

3. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or Not?

(a) President

(b) Chairmen of Rajya Sabha

(d) Minister of Parliamentary affairs.

4. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Bill bringing a State under the President's rule

(b) Money Bill

(d) Bill proclaiming all the State of emergency arising out of war or external aggression.

5. Which one is NOT true regarding the bill in Parliament:

(a) The legislative process begins with the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament, i.e. the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha (exception money bill)

(b) A Bill can be introduced either by a Minister or by a private member.

(d) A joint session of the two houses is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

6. Union Central Administrative Tribunal is passed to:

(a) Provide for the adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunals of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service

(b) Provide relief from highhandedness of police

(d) None of these

7. The Central Administrative Tribunals is passed in

(a) 1988

(b) 1985

(d) 1991

8. Which Article of Indian Constitution have the provision of CAT:

(a) Article 312A

(b) Article 122

(d) Article 332A

9. The provisions of this Act (CAT) shall not apply to:

(a) Any officer or servant of the Supreme Court or of any High Court (or courts subordinate thereto).

(b) Any member of the naval, military or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union.

(d) All of the Above

10. The Chairman of the CAT, should be a

(a) A sitting or retired Judge of a High Court

(b) A sitting or retired Judge of a Supreme Court

(d) Member of the Parliament

Question	Answer
1	c
2	b
3	c
4	b
5	c
6	a
7	b
8	c
9	d
10	a

GK Quiz on Attorney General of India & Basic Structure Doctrines of the Constitution

1. Which of the following article of Indian Constitution dealt with the appointment of attorney general of India?

(a) Article 72

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 76

(d) Article 68

2. Which of the following is true about the Attorney General of India?

(a) He has the right of audience in all the courts in India

(b) His term of the office and remuneration is decided by the president

(d) All the above

3. Who is the highest legal officer of the Union Government of India?

(a) Attorney General of India

(b) CAG

(d) Solicitor General of India

4. To be eligible for appointment as Attorney General of India, a person must possess the qualifications prescribed for a............

(a) Judge of Supreme Court of India

(b) Judge of a high court

(d) Solicitor General of India

5. Which one is not true about the Attorney General of India?

(a) He is the legal advisor to the Government of India

(b) His tenure and salary is decided by the President

(d) He appears before high courts and Supreme Court in cases involving union government.

6. Who prepared the preamble of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(b) Vallabh Bhai Patel

(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

7. Preamble of our country reads that India is a …………

(a) Sovereign & secular

(b) Secular & Democratic

(d) Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Democratic and Republic

8. Which of the following describes India as a secular state

(a) Fundamental rights

(b) Directive principles of state policy

(d) Preamble of the Constitution

9. Inclusion of the word “ fraternity is proposed by

(a) Dr. Ambedkar

(b) J.L. Nehru

(d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

10. Supreme court held that the Preamble is not a part of the constitution in which of the following cases:

(a) Berubari Union case (1960) and Kesavanand Bharti case (1973)

(b) Unni Krishnan vs Union of India

(d) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Government

Question	Answer
1	c
2	d
3	a
4	a
5	c
6	a
7	d
8	d
9	a
10	a

GK Quiz on Indian Polity on Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution

1. Who said that the preamble is the keynote to the constitution?

(a) Earnest Barker

(b) B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru

2. Which feature of Indian constitution is not taken from American constitution?

(a) Preamble

(b) Single citizenship

(d) Fundamental Rights

3. Procedure for the amendment of the constitution is taken form:

(a) USA

(b) Russia

(d) Canada

4. The concept of Federal System in Indian constitution is taken from:

(a) Ireland

(b) Australia

(d) Canada

5. Which of the following statement is true regarding the Indian constitution?

(a) Law making procedure is taken from Britain

(b) Concept of single citizenship is taken from United kingdom

(d) Appointment of the governor in different states is taken from Australia

6. Which Government of India Act has the most influence on the current constitution of India?

(a) Government of India Act, 1935

(b) Pits India Act, 1784

(d) Indian Constitution Act,1909

7. The Idea of a constituent assembly to frame a constitution for India was first mooted by:

(a) M.N. Roy in 1927

(b) Indian National Congress in 1936

(d) The all parties conference in 1946

8. Article 17 of the Indian constitution is related to:

(a) Prohibition of Child labour

(b) Equality before law

(d) Abolition of Titles

9. Under which Article, Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth is mentioned:

(a) Article 17

(b) Article 14

(d) Article 15

10. Article 21A of Indian constitution deals with:

(a) Protection against arrest and detection in certain cases

(b) Right to education

(d) Equality before law

Question	Answer
1	a
2	b
3	c
4	d
5	b
6	a
7	a
8	c
9	d
10	b

GK Quiz on Indian Polity on Article 370 and Attached Office and Subordinate Office

1. To which of the following states, Article 370 if the Indian constitution is related:

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Meghalaya

(d) Jammu & Kashmir

2. Article 370 is drafted in the part………of the Indian Constitution.

(a) XXI

(b) XIX

(c) XII

(d) IXX

3. Article 370 which gives special status to Jammu & Kashmir exist in the Indian constitution because of the agreement between............

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru and Farukh Abdullah

(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru and Maharaja Hari Singh

(d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah and J.L. Nehru

4. Which statement is NOT correct about the Jammu& Kashmir

(a) Jammu & Kashmir has its own Constitution.

(b) No decision regarding the disposition of the state of the Jammu& Kashmir can be made by the government of India without the consent of the state government.

(d) All of the above are incorrect.

5. Which Indian state has its own constitution?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) None of these

6. Under which ministry, Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) organisation comes:

(a) Ministry of Finance

(b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

(d) Home Ministry

7. When the Directorate General of Anti-Dumping & Allied Duties was was constituted?

(a) 1998

(b) 1988

(d) 1985

8. Which one of the following is a subordinate office?

(a) Offices of Development Commissioner of Special Economic Zones (SEZs)

(b) Directorate General of Anti-Dumping & Allied Duties (DGAD)

(d) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)

9. Where is the head quarter of the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)?

(a) Mumbai

(b) Bangaluru

(d) kolkata

10. Where is the head office of pay and accounts office (supply)?

(a) Kolkata

(b) New Delhi

(d) Mumbai

Question	Answer
1	d
2	a
3	b
4	d
5	d
6	b
7	a
8	a
9	c
10	b

GK Quiz on Indian Polity on Constitutional Amendment in India

1. Which article of Indian constitution deals with constitutional amendments?

(a) Article 332

(b) Article 386

(d) None of the above

2. In which Constitutional Amendment Act, Goa was made a full fledged State with a State assembly?

(a) 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977

(b) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978

(d) 57th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987

3. In which Constitutional Amendment Act An authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi was provided to the people of India by the President?

(a) 57th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987

(b) 58th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987

(d) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988

4. Which Constitutional Amendment Act, provided reservation in admissions in private unaided educational institutions for students belonging to scheduled castes/tribes and other backward classes?

(a) 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005

(b) 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003

(d) 95th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2009

5. Which constitutional amendment reduced the voting rights from 21 years to 18 years?

(a) 54th

(b) 36th

(d) 61st

6. Under which constitutional amendment Bill, four languages: Bodo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali are added in the 8th schedule of the Indian constitution.

(a) 89th

(b) 92nd

(d) 95th

7. Which of the following amendment was passed during the emergency?

(a) 45th Amendment

(b) 50th Amendment

(d) 42nd Amendment

8. In which of the following amendment the term of Lok Sabha increased from 5 to 6 years?

(a) 40th Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 46th Amendment

9. Which of the following is true about the constitution (42nd amendment) Act, 1976.

(a) Precedence to directive principles over fundamental rights

(b) Fundamental duties are included

(d) All the above

10. Which of the following amendment Act makes the right to education as the fundamental right to all the children under the age of 6-14 years by inserting Article 21A to the constitution.

(a) 87th amendment, 2003

(b) 86th amendment, 2002

(d) 89th Amendment, 2003

Question	Answer
1	c
2	c
3	b
4	a
5	d
6	b
7	d
8	b
9	d
10	b

GK Quiz on Indian Polity (SET 1)

1. Which of the following election is not conducted under the supervision of Election Commission of India?

(a) Election of vice president of India

(b) Election of states legislatures

(d) Election for the Parliament

2. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by

(a) First Amendment

(b) Eighth Amendment

(d) Forty Second Amendment

3. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister?

(a) Federalism

(b) Representative legislature

(d) Parliamentary democracy

4. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Fundamental Duties

5. What are the features of the regulating act of 1773?

1. It designated `Governor of Bengal' as `Governor General' of Bengal.

2. Bombay, Madras and Bengal presidencies were made independent of one another.

3. Provided for the establishment of a supreme court at Calcutta (1774).

6. Which of the following is not true regarding the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India

(b) Chief Election Commissioner of India can be by the same process as applicable to judge of Supreme Court.

(c) Other election commissioners can be removed by the president on the recommendation of Chief Election Commission of India.

(d) T. Swaminathan was the first chief Chief Election Commissioner of India.

7. Which of the following is not the fundamental duty for Indian citizens?

(a) To safe guard public property

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment

(d) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of enquiry

8. The council of ministers is responsible to the……..

(a) Rasja Sabha

(b) President

(d) Prime Minister

9. Which of the following Government of India act is called the mini constitution of India?

(a) Government of India Act 1919

(b) Government of India Act 1935

(d) Government of India Act1909

10. Supreme Court of India was established on the recommendation of

(a) Pits India Act of 1784

(b) Regulating act of 1773

(d) Charter act of 1813

Question	Answer
1	c
2	a
3	d
4	c
5	c
6	d
7	c
8	c
9	b
10	b

GK Quiz on Advocate General of the State & All India Services

1. Advocate General of the State is appointed for the period of:

(a) 5 years

(b) 6 years

(d) No fix tenure

2. Advocate General of the State submits his resignation to:

(a) Chief Judge of high court of the state

(b) Governor of the respective states

(d) Chief Minister of the state

3. Which article states that each state shall have an Advocate General?

(a) Article 194

(b) Article 177

(d) Article 165

4. Which one is NOT correct regarding Advocate General of State?

(a) He has the right of audience in any Court in the State Legislative

(b) The Advocate General is the first law officer of a State.

(d) He has the voting right in the state legislature.

5. What is the salary of the Advocate General of the State?

(a) 90,000/Month

(b) 1,20000/month

(d) As decided by the President

6. Which article of Indian constitution protects the civil servants from the politically motivated or vindictive action

(a) Article 109

(b) Article 19

(d) None of the above

7. Which have the right to start an Indian service?

(a) Rajya Sabha

(b) Lok Sabha

(d) President

8. Civil services day is observed on:

(a) 23 April

(b) 21 July

(d) 21 April

9. Which Ministry/Authority has the right to remove the incompetent, inefficient and unproductive All India Service officers after 15 years of service?

(a) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

(b) Ministry of Home Affairs

(d) State Government

10. The members of the UPSC are appointed by the............. for the term of ......years.

(a) Prime Minister, 6 years

(b) President, 6 years

(d) Home minister, 6 years

Question	Answer
1.	d
2.	c
3.	d
4.	d
5.	c
6.	c
7.	a
8.	d
9.	a
10.	b

GK Quiz on Rajya Sabha & Centre-State Relations

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution has the provision of Finance Commission in India?

A. Article 275

B. Article 280

C. Article 265

D. Article 360

Ans: B

2. Which article has the provision that the union government will provide grants-in-aid to state government?

A. Article 275

B. Article 280

C. Article 265

D. Article 360

Ans: A

3. Duties levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated by the States are:

A. Succession duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.

B. Estate duty in respect of property rather than agricultural land

C. Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations

D. Taxes on railway fares and freights

Ans: C

4. Taxes Levied and Collected by the Union but Assigned to the States within which they are leviable.

Find out the correct option from below:

I. Taxes on transactions in stock exchange

II. Tax of sale and purchase of newspapers including advertisements

III. Estate duty in respect of property other than agriculture land

IV. Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations

A. Only I & II are correct

B. I,II & III are correct

C. All are correct

D. Only IV & I are correct

Ans: B

5. Which article of Indian constitution says that “Parliament has the power to make laws on any matter in the state list if a proclamation of emergency is in operation?

A. Article 256

B. Article 249

C. Article 275

D. Article 365

Ans: B

GK Quiz on Parliament & Parliamentary Committees

6. Election of members of Rajya Sabha is taken from:

A. Constitution Of Japan

B. Constitution Of South Africa

C. Constitution Of USA

D. Constitution Of Ireland

Ans: B

7. The numbers of members of Rajya Sabha from states and union Territories is:

A. 238

B. 250

C. 235

D. 220

Ans: A

8. Who the representative from states in Rajya Sabha is elected by the

A. Chief Minister of the state

B. Governor of the state

C. President

D. Elected members of the state legislative Assembly

Ans: D

9. Which article of the Constitution says that Counsel of States (Rajya Sabha) shall not be dissolute?

A. Article 83

B. Article 53

C. Article 80

D. Article 154

Ans: A

10. Which article of Indian Constitution says that members elected by the president can’t vote in the election of president?

A. Article 83

B. Article 53

C. Article 55

D. Article 154

Ans: C

Quiz on Polity (National Commission for Other Backward Class, Attorney General of India)

1. Which of the following article of Indian Constitution dealt with the appointment of attorney general of India?

A. Article 72

B. Article 74

C. Article 76

D. Article 68

Ans: C

2. Which of the following is true about the Attorney General of India?

A. He has the right of audience in all the courts in India

B. His term of the office and remuneration is decided by the president

C. He advices the government of India

D. All the above

Ans: D

3. Who is the highest legal officer of the union government of India?

A. Attorney General of India

B. CAG

C. President

D. Solicitor General of India

Ans: A

4. To be eligible for appointment as attorney general of India, a person must possess the qualifications prescribed for a............

A. Judge of Supreme Court of India

B. Judge of a high court

C. A renown lawyer

D. Solicitor general of India

Ans: A

5. Which one is not true about the attorney general of India?

A. He is the legal advisor to the government of India

B. His tenure and salary is decided by the president

C. He has the voting right in the proceeding of the parliament

D. He appears before high courts and Supreme Court in cases involving union government.

Ans: C

6. National Commission for Other Backward Class came into effect from:

A. 1993

B. 1995

C. 1992

D. 2003

Ans: A

7. Which article of Indian constitution gives the power to the government to make special provisions for the development of SC/ST/OBC against the article 15?

A. Article 19

B. Article 29

C. Article 25

D. None of these

Ans: B

8. Who is the current Chairman of the National Commission for Other Backward Class?

A. Najma Hiptulla

B. P.L.Punia

C. Justice Swatanter Kumar

D. Justice V. Eswaraiah

Ans: D

9. How many members are in the National Commission for Other Backward Class?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 3

D. 8

Ans: A

10. What is the current limit of creamy layer in India to decide the benefits of the reservation?

A. 4.5 lac /Annum

B. 6 lac /Annum

C. 8 lac /Annum

D. None of these

Ans: B

GK Quiz on Powers of Parliament, National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)

1. Which of the following article dealt with the formation of Parliament?

A. Article 54

B. Article 63

C. Article 77

D. Article 79

Ans: D

2. Article 250 of the constitution says that:

A. In case of the declaration of President's Rule in any State under Article 356 of the Constitution, the Parliament is competent to legislate on any matter included in the State List.

B. Education will be in the con- current list of the constitution.

C. Every Indian state will have a governor to assist chief minister.

D. Some taxes will be imposed and collected by the central government only.

Ans: A

3. Joint session of the parliament is arranged under the article........

A. 78

B. 103

C. 108

D. 249

Ans: C

4. Which of the following is not sacked/ impeached by the Parliament?

A. President

B. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

C. Auditor General

D. Attorney General of India

Ans: D

5. Which of the following is true about Parliament?

A. Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

B. The Vice- President is elected by both the Houses of the Parliament.

C. Joint session of the parliament is headed by the president

D. Joint session of the parliament is called by the Lok Sabha Speaker.

Ans: B

6. Who is the current Chairman of National Human Rights Commission?

A. Cyriac joseph

B. K.G. Balakrishnan

C. Markedey katju

D. Lila Samson

Ans: A

7. The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) must be :

A. Retired judge of high court

B. A lawyer who has the eligibility to be a judge of Supreme Court

C. Retired Judge of Supreme Court

D. Retired Attorney General of India

Ans: C

8. The Chairperson and members of the NHRC are appointed on the recommendation of a committee consisting of:

A. Prime Minister, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition in both houses of Parliament, Lok Sabha Speaker

B. Prime Minister, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition in both houses of Parliament, Lok Sabha Speaker and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

C. Prime Minister, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition in both houses of Parliament, Lok Sabha Speaker and President

D. Prime Minister, Home Minister, President and Chief Judge of Supreme Court

Ans: B

9. The Chairman of NHRC is appointed for the period of:

A. 6 years or till the age of 70 years

B. 6 years or till the age of 65 years

C. 5 years or till the age of 65 years

D. 5 Years or till the age of 70 years

Ans: D

10. NHRC was established in the year:

A. 1951

B. 1993

C. 1965

D. 1990

Ans: B

GK Quiz on polity: National Commission for Schedule Caste & Official Languages of India

1. Which article of the Indian constitution has the provisions regarding the SC Commission?

A. Article 90

B. Article 338

C. Article 386

D. Article 330

Ans: B

2. Who is the current Chairman of the National Commission for SCs?

A. K.G. Balakrishnan

B. Dilip Singh Bhuria

C. P.L. Punia

D. Suraj Bhan

Ans: C

3. National Commission for SC/ST was constituted on the basis of :

A. 1989 Act

B. 1995 Act

C. 1992 Act

D. 1956 Act

Ans: A

4. Which of the following function performed by the National Commission for SC?

A. To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes under the Constitution.

B. To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes

C. Full implementation of the various acts like the PCR Act, 1955 and SC and ST (POA) Act, 1989.

D. All of the above

Ans: D

5. Which constitutional amendment has the provision of reservation of seats for SCs/STs in public service and legislatures until 2020?

A. 96th Amendment

B. 95th Amendment

C. 89th Amendment

D. 102nd Amendment

Ans: B

6. Which of the following article dealt with the formation of Parliament?

A. Article 54

B. Article 63

C. Article 77

D. Article 79

Ans: D

7. Article 250 of the constitution says that:

A. In case of the declaration of President's Rule in any State under Article 356 of the Constitution, the Parliament is competent to legislate on any matter included in the State List.

B. Education will be in the con- current list of the constitution.

C. Every Indian state will have a governor to assist chief minister.

D. Some taxes will be imposed and collected by the central government only.

Ans: A

8. Joint session of the parliament is arranged under the........

A. Article 78

B. Article 103

C. Article 108

D. Article 249

Ans: C

9. Which of the following is not sacked/ impeached by the Parliament?

A. President

B. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

C. Auditor General

D. Attorney General of India

Ans: D

10. Which of the following is true about Parliament?

A. Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

B. The Vice- President is elected by both the Houses of the Parliament.

C. Joint session of the parliament is headed by the president

D. Joint session of the parliament is called by the Lok Sabha Speaker.

Ans: B

GK Quiz on Writs and their Scope & Public Services Commission

1. Which of the following writs is said to be a guarantor of personal freedom?

(a) Mandamus

(b) Habeas Corpus

(d) Certiorari

2. Which of the following writs can be used against a person believed to be holding a public office to which he is not entitled to?

(a) Habeas Corpus

(b) Mandamus

(d) Quo warranto

3. The power to issue writs by the Supreme Court has been envisaged under which of the following articles?

(a) Article 226

(b) Article 32

(d) Article 25

4. Which of the following writs can been issued to force a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty?

(a) Prohibition

(b) Quo warranto

(d) Habeas Corpus

5. Match the names of writs in list I with their meanings in list II.

Name of the writ Meaning of the writ

List I List II

1. Habeas Corpus A. To command

2. Mandamus B. By what warrant

3. Certiorari C. You should have the body

4. Quo Warranto D. To inform

(a) 1-B; 2-D; 3-A; 4-C

(b) 1-B; 2-A; 3-D; 4-C

(d) 1-C;2-A; 3-D; 4-B

Q6. The chairman and the members of the State Civil Service Commission are appointed by which of the following?

(a) President

(b) Governor

(d) Chief Justice of High Court

Q7. What is the age of retirement of member of a Union Public Service Commission?

(a) 65 yr

(b) 64 yr

(d) 62 yr

Q8. Who can remove the services of a member of Union Public Service Commission?

(a) President

(b) Governor of the state

(d) Law Minister

Q9. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) The age retirement of a member of state public service commission is 65 years.

(b) Only lower house of the Indian parliament has the right to start an all India service.

(d) The chairman of the state service commission is eligible for appointment as the chairman or member of the Union Public Service Commission.

Q 10. Which of the following statement is incorrect (in terms of functions of the public service commission)?

1. To conduct examinations for the appointment to the services of the state & union

2. To advice on any matter so referred to them and on any other matter which the president or the governor of a state may refer to the appropriate commission.

3. To give directions to the home ministry regarding the appointment of the candidates.

(a) 1, 2

(b) 2, 3

(d) Only 2

Question	Answer
1	b
2	d
3	b
4	b
5	d
6	b
7	a
8	a
9	a
10	c

GK Quiz on Indian Polity Set 3

1. Under which Article, Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth is mentioned:

(a) Article 18
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 15

2. Article 21A of Indian constitution deals with:

(a) Protection against arrest and detection in certain cases
(b) Right to education
(c) Freedom of speech
(d) Equality before law

3. Who is the final deciding authority on the question of disqualification by anti-defection?

(a) Chairman or Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) None of the above

4. Which of the following is not the fundamental duty for Indian citizens?

(a) To safe guard public property
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment
(c) To obey all the women
(d) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of enquiry

5. The council of ministers is responsible to the……..

(a) Rasja Sabha
(b) President
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister

6. Which of the following Government of India act is called the mini constitution of India?

(a) Government of India Act 1919
(b) Government of India Act 1935
(c) Government of India Act 1915
(d) Government of India Act1909

7. Consider the following two statements regarding the implementation of anti-defection law:

1. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party;
2. If an elected member votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorized to do so, without obtaining any prior permission.

Which of the above 2 statements is a criteria for the anti-defection law?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. In which year the Central Bureau of Investigation was established?

(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1963
(d) 1965

9. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) comes under the administrative control of:

(a) Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) of the Ministry of Personnel
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Defense
(d) None of the above

10. Advocate General of the State is appointed for the period of:

(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) Decided by the President
(d) No fix tenure

Question No.	Answer
1	d
2	b
3	a
4	c
5	c
6	b
7	c
8	c
9	a
10	d

GK Questions and Answers on Indian Polity Set 4

1. Which of the following statement is/are correct about the Jammu & Kashmir?

(i) Article 370 of the Indian constitution provides special status to jammu& Kashmir

(ii) Special status to jammu& Kashmir is mentioned in part XX of the Indian constitution.

(iii) All the provision of constitution of India do not apply on the Jammu& Kashmir

(a) Only i

(b) Only I, ii

(d) All I,ii,iii

2. The instrument of accession of Jammu & Kashmir was passed by the Jawahar Lal Nehru and Maharaja Hari Singh on…

(a) 26 October 1947

(b) 15 Aug. 1947

(d) 20 Dec. 1949

3. The 11th fundamental duty was added by the ………….

(a) 92nd constitutional amendment Act

(b) 86th constitutional amendment Act

(d) None of these

4. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(a) President is the head of the union executive.

(b) To be president of India, one should have completed the age of 30 years.

(d) To be president of India one should be eligible to be qualified as a member of the house of the people.

5. Which of the following dignitary is not appointed by the president of India?

(a) The prime minister of India

(b) The judges of the supreme court

(d) None of these

6. Which of the following dignitary does not submit his resignation to the president of India?

(a) Vice president of India

(b) Chief justice of India

(d) Prime minister of the India

7. Which of the following is not the mandatory eligibility to be a governor of the state?

(a) Qualification for the posts of

(b) Should be 30 yr of age.

(d) He is appointed by the present of India

8. Which of the following is matched correctly?

(a) Article 124: establishment of the supreme court

(b) Article 148: appointment of the CAG

(d) Article 112: definition of money bill

9. Which of the following I not true about Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the president of India

(b) Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from the same way as the judge of Supreme Court.

(d) Chief Election Commissioner is appointed for the tenure of 6 years

10. Which of the following is not true about the panchayat system of India?

(a) Part IX of the constitution envisages a three tier system of the panchayats.

(b) The chairperson of the each panchayat is elected according to the law passed by the centre govt.

(d) Every panchayat can continue for 5 years.

Question No.	Answer
1	c
2	a
3	b
4	b
5	d
6	c
7	b
8	d
9	c
10	b

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All in one Political Mcq's

GK Quiz on President & Pressure Groups

GK Quiz on Parliamentary Forum & Preamble of the Constitution

GK Quiz on Parliament & Parliamentary Committees

GK Quiz on NITI Aayog & Panchayati Raj in India

GK Quiz on High courts & Lokpal and Lokayuktas

GK Quiz on Fundamental Duties & Fundamental Rights

GK Quiz on Emergency Provisions & Governors of the States

GK Questions and Answers: Election System in India & Election Reforms

GK Quiz on Directive Principles of State Policy & Election Commission of India

GK Quiz on Citizenship of India, Citizenship Amendment Act & Chief Minister of the state

GK Quiz on Comptroller and Auditor General of India & Constitution of India

GK Quiz on Anti-defection Law and Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

GK Quiz on Indian Polity (SET 2)

GK Quiz on the Members of Parliament & National Commission for O.B.C.

GK Quiz on Indian Budget & Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)

GK Quiz on Elections for the Lok Sabha & Borrowed features of Indian Constitution

GK Quiz on Definition of State in India & Co-operative Societies in India

GK Quiz of Indian Polity on Central Information Commission & Central Vigilance Commission

GK Quiz on Bills and Passing of an Act & Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)

GK Quiz on Attorney General of India & Basic Structure Doctrines of the Constitution

GK Quiz on Indian Polity on Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution

GK Quiz on Indian Polity on Article 370 and Attached Office and Subordinate Office

GK Quiz on Indian Polity on Constitutional Amendment in India

GK Quiz on Indian Polity (SET 1)

GK Quiz on Advocate General of the State & All India Services

GK Quiz on Rajya Sabha & Centre-State Relations

Quiz on Polity (National Commission for Other Backward Class, Attorney General of India)

GK Quiz on Powers of Parliament, National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)

GK Quiz on polity: National Commission for Schedule Caste & Official Languages of India

GK Quiz on Writs and their Scope & Public Services Commission

GK Quiz on Indian Polity Set 3

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